The word question is real, but the corpus supplied here doesn't carry the Hebrew text of Isaiah 7:14 or the Greek of the Septuagint, so the lemma-level claim — what almah means against bethulah, and how the LXX's parthenos handles it — can't be verified from what's in hand. That has to be said plainly rather than papered over.

What can be said from the passages given: the WEB translation renders Isaiah 7:14 as "virgin," and the same English word "virgin" appears in the other Isaiah texts supplied — 62:5 ("a young man marries a virgin"), 37:22 ("the virgin daughter of Zion"). Those uses show the word functioning two ways even in translation: 62:5 is about an unmarried woman in the ordinary sense, while 37:22 is a figure of personified Jerusalem, not a claim about anyone's marital status. That alone should caution against assuming "virgin" always means a technical, physiological claim wherever it appears — context decides.

Deuteronomy 22:20, also supplied, uses "virginity" in a legal context concerning a bride's chastity — the closest thing here to the narrow, technical sense the debate over Isaiah 7:14 usually turns on (whether the underlying word necessarily implies virginity or simply "young woman of marriageable age"). But that passage is Mosaic law, not Isaiah, and doesn't settle what word Isaiah used or how the Greek translators read it.

The honest answer: the question of whether the underlying Hebrew word in Isaiah 7:14 is properly translated "virgin," and whether the Greek translation sharpened or preserved that sense, is a real textual-critical question — but it can't be adjudicated from the English-only material here. Anyone working through it seriously needs the Hebrew and Septuagint texts side by side, which this corpus does not carry. Isaiah 7:21, also given, is simply the next scene in the sign — a description of subsistence farming after judgment — and doesn't bear on the wording question at all.